The Best CISA Exam Study Material and Preparation Test Question Dumps
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ISACA CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) certification exam is a globally recognized certification that validates your expertise in information systems auditing, control, and security. Certified Information Systems Auditor certification is specifically designed for professionals who are responsible for ensuring the security, confidentiality, and integrity of information systems within their organizations. The CISA certification is recognized by employers and governments worldwide as a benchmark for information systems auditing.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the attack surface for a server farm?
- A. Implement effective vulnerability management procedures.
- B. Ensure applications are periodically patched.
- C. Uninstall unnecessary applications and services.
- D. Evaluate server configuration periodically.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 119
When auditing the security architecture of an online application, an IS auditor should FIRST review the
- A. firewall standards
- B. firmware version of the firewall
- C. location of the firewall within the network.
- D. configuration of the firewall
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 120
What is the key distinction between encryption and hashing algorithms?
- A. Encryption algorithms are not irreversible.
- B. Hashing algorithms ensure data confidentiality.
- C. Encryption algorithms ensure data integrity.
- D. Hashing algorithms are irreversible.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A key distinction between encryption and hashing algorithms is that hashing algorithms are irreversible.
NEW QUESTION # 121
During a follow-up audit, an IS auditor finds that senior management has implemented a different remediation action plan than what was previously agreed upon. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST course of action?
- A. Cancel the follow-up audit and reschedule for the next audit period.
- B. Request justification from management for not implementing the recommended control.
- C. Evaluate the implemented control to ensure it mitigates the risk to an acceptable level.
- D. Report the deviation by the control owner in the audit report.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve high availability and fault tolerance for an e-business system?
- A. Network diversity
- B. Storage area network
- C. Robust systems architecture
- D. Secure offsite backup storage
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 123
What is often assured through table link verification and reference checks?
- A. Database normalcy
- B. Database accuracy
- C. Database integrity
- D. Database synchronization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Database integrity is most often ensured through table link verification and reference checks.
NEW QUESTION # 124
As part of the architecture of virtualized environments, in a bare metal or native virtualization the hypervisor runs without:
- A. any applications on the guest operating system.
- B. any applications on the host operating system.
- C. a guest operating system.
- D. a host operating system.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure an organization's data classification policies are preserved during the process of data transformation?
- A. Control access to extract, transform, and load (ETL) tools.
- B. Map data classification controls to data sets.
- C. Implement classification labels in metadata during data creation.
- D. Conduct a data discovery exercise across all business applications.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data classification is the process of tagging data according to its type, sensitivity, and value to the organization. Data transformation is the process of changing the structure and format of data to make it usable for analysis and visualization. Both processes are important for data security and compliance, but they also pose some challenges.
One of the challenges is to ensure that the organization's data classification policies are preserved during the process of data transformation. This means that the data should retain its original classification level and labels after it is transformed, and that the appropriate controls and protections are applied to the transformed data.
The best way to ensure this is to implement classification labels in metadata during data creation (D).
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its source, format, content, and context. By adding classification labels to metadata, the data can be easily identified and tracked throughout its lifecycle, including during data transformation. The labels can also help enforce the proper access rights and encryption standards for the data, regardless of its state or location.
NEW QUESTION # 126
An organization has developed mature risk management practices that are followed across all departments What is the MOST effective way for the audit team to leverage this risk management maturity?
- A. Facilitating audit risk identification and evaluation workshops
- B. Implementing risk responses on management's behalf
- C. Providing assurances to management regarding risk
- D. Integrating the risk register for audit planning purposes
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most effective way for the audit team to leverage the risk management maturity of the organization is to integrate the risk register for audit planning purposes. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies for a project or an organization. By using the risk register, the audit team can align their audit objectives, scope, and procedures with the organization's risk profile and priorities. This will help the audit team to provide more value-added and relevant assurance and recommendations to the management and stakeholders.
Some of the web sources that support this answer are:
* Audit Maturity And Risk Management | Ideagen
* Building a Mature Enterprise Risk Management Plan | AuditBoard
* CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor - Question0551
NEW QUESTION # 127
During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a
firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?
- A. Authentication
- B. Data validation
- C. Identification
- D. Data integrity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Information System Operations, Maintenance and Support
NEW QUESTION # 128
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security governance committee?
- A. Approving the purchase of information security technologies
- B. Approving the information security awareness training strategy
- C. Analyzing information security policy compliance reviews
- D. Reviewing the information security strategy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Governance and Management of IT
NEW QUESTION # 129
An IS auditor finds that client requests were processed multiple times when received from different
independent departmental databases, which are synchronized weekly. What would be the BEST
recommendation?
- A. Change the application architecture so that common data is held in just one shared database for all
departments. - B. implement reconciliation controls to detect duplicates before orders are processed in the systems.
- C. Centralize all request processing in one department to avoid parallel processing of the same request.
- D. increase the frequency for data replication between the different department systems to ensure timely
updates.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Keeping the data in one place is the best way to ensure that data are stored without redundancy and that all
users have the same data on their systems. Although increasing the frequency may help to minimize the
problem, the risk of duplication cannot be eliminated completely because parallel data entry is still possible.
Business requirements will most likely dictate where data processing activities are performed. Changing
the business structure to solve an IT problem is not practical or politically feasible. Detective controls do not
solve the problem of duplicate processing, and would require that an additional process be implemented to
handle the discovered duplicates.
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY audience for a third-party technical security assessment report?
- A. External regulators
- B. Board of directors
- C. Legal counsel
- D. Operational IT management
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure enterprise architectural objectives are aligned with business and technology objectives?
- A. Identify business stakeholder responsibilities for IT projects.
- B. Identify dependencies between current and future state technologies.
- C. Optimize technology investments with business requirements.
- D. Adopt industry-approved architecture standards and best practices.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 132
The information in the knowledge base can be expressed in several ways. Which of the following way uses
questionnaires to lead the user through a series of choices until a conclusion is reached?
- A. Decision tree
- B. Semantic nets
- C. Rules
- D. Knowledge interface
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation
Explanation/Reference:
Decision tree uses questionnaires to lead the user through a series of choices, until a conclusion is
reached. Flexibility is compromised because the user must answer the questions in an exact sequence.
For CISA Exam you should know below information about Artificial Intelligence and Expert System
Artificial intelligence is the study and application of the principles by which:
Knowledge is acquired and used
Goals are generated and achieved
Information is communicated
Collaboration is achieved
Concepts are formed
Languages are developed
Two main programming languages that have been developed for artificial intelligence are LISP and
PROLOG.
Expert system are compromised primary components, called shells, when they are not populated with
particular data, and the shells are designed to host new expert system.
Keys to the system is the knowledge base (KB), which contains specific information or fact patterns
associated with a particular subject matter and the rule for interpreting these facts. The KB interface with a
database in obtaining data to analyze a particular problem in deriving an expert conclusion. The information
in the KB can be expressed in several ways:
Decision Tree - Using questionnaires to lead the user through a series of choices, until a conclusion is
reached. Flexibility is compromised because the user must answer the questions in an exact sequence.
Rule - Expressing declarative knowledge through the use of if-then relationships. For example, if a
patient's body temperature is over 39 degrees Celsius and their pulse is under 60, then they might be
suffering from a certain disease.
Semantic nets - Consist of a graph in which the node represent physical or conceptual object and the arcs
describe the relationship between the nodes. Semantic nets resemble a data flow diagram and make use
of an inheritance mechanism to prevent duplication of a data.
Additionally, the inference engine shown is a program that uses the KB and determines the most
appropriate outcome based on the information supplied by the user. In addition, an expert system includes
the following components
Knowledge interface - Allows the expert to enter knowledge into the system without the traditional
mediation of a software engineer.
Data Interface - Enables the expert system to collect data from nonhuman sources, such as measurement
instruments in a power plant.
The following were incorrect answers:
Rule - Expressing declarative knowledge through the use of if-then relationships.
Semantic nets - Semantic nets consist of a graph in which the node represent physical or conceptual object
and the arcs describe the relationship between the nodes.
Knowledge interface - Allows the expert to enter knowledge into the system without the traditional
mediation of a software engineer.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 187
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following are BEST suited for continuous auditing?
- A. Manual transactions
- B. Low-value transactions
- C. Real-lime transactions
- D. Irregular transactions
Answer: C
Explanation:
Continuous auditing is a method of performing audit-related activities on a real-time or near real-time basis.
Continuous auditing is best suited for real-time transactions, such as online banking, e-commerce, or electronic funds transfer, that require immediate verification and assurance. Low-value transactions are not necessarily suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not pose significant risks or require frequent monitoring. Irregular transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not occur frequently or consistently enough to justify the use of continuous auditing techniques. Manual transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not be captured or processed by automated systems that enable continuous auditing. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 307-3081
CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID: 253
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which type of review is MOST important to conduct when an IS auditor is informed that a recent internal exploitation of a bug has been discovered in a business application?
- A. Forensic audit
- B. Penetration testing
- C. Server security audit
- D. Application security testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The type of review that is most important to conduct when an IS auditor is informed that a recent internal exploitation of a bug has been discovered in a business application is C. Forensic audit. A forensic audit is a type of audit that involves collecting, analyzing, and preserving evidence of fraud, corruption, or other illegal or unethical activities1. A forensic audit can help the IS auditor to identify and document the source, scope, and impact of the exploitation, as well as the perpetrators, motives, and methods involved. A forensic audit can also help the IS auditor to provide recommendations for preventing or mitigating future exploitations, and to support any legal actions or investigations that may arise from the incident2.
NEW QUESTION # 135
An IS auditor notes that a number of application plug-ins currently in use are no longer supported. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST recommendation to management?
- A. Conduct a vulnerability assessment to determine exposure.
- B. Review on-boarding and off-boarding processes.
- C. Implement role-based access controls.
- D. Review content backup and archiving procedures.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: The process of Auditing Information System
NEW QUESTION # 136
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of using computer forensic software for investigations?
- A. Ability to search for violations of intellectual property rights
- B. Time and cost savings
- C. Efficiency and effectiveness
- D. The preservation of the chain of custody for electronic evidence
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The primary objective of forensic software is to preserve electronic evidence to meet the rules of evidence.
Choice B, time and cost savings, and choice C, efficiency and effectiveness, are legitimate concerns that
differentiate good from poor forensic software packages. Choice D, the ability to search for intellectual
property rights violations, is an example of a use of forensic software.
NEW QUESTION # 137
Which of the following approaches BEST enables an IS auditor to detect security vulnerabilities within an application?
- A. Concept mapping
- B. Threat intelligence
- C. Prototyping
- D. Threat modelling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Threat modeling is the best approach for detecting security vulnerabilities within an application. It involves identifying potential threats, vulnerabilities, and attack vectors during the design and development stages, allowing for proactive mitigation of risks and strengthening application security.
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of an IT performance measurement process?
- A. Gather performance data
- B. Optimize performance
- C. Establish performance baselines
- D. Minimize errors
Answer: B
Explanation:
An IT performance measurement process can be used to optimize performance, measure and manage products/services, assure accountability and make budget decisions. Minimizing errors is an aspect of performance, but not the primary objective of performance management. Gathering performance data is a phase of IT measurement process and would be used to evaluate the performance against previously established performance baselines.
NEW QUESTION # 139
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing tabletop exercises within a cybersecurity incident response plan?
- A. Identify the scope and scenarios that are relevant to current threats faced by the organization.
- B. Ensure the incident response team will have enough distractions to simulate real-life situations.
- C. Create exercises that are challenging enough to prove inadequacies in the current incident response plan.
- D. Ensure participants are selected from all cross-functional units in the organization.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The most important consideration when developing tabletop exercises within a cybersecurity incident response plan is to identify the scope and scenarios that are relevant to current threats faced by the organization, as this will ensure that the exercises are realistic, meaningful, and effective in testing and improving the incident response capabilities12. The scope and scenarios should reflect the organization's risk profile, business objectives, and operational environment, and should cover a variety of potential incidents that could impact the organization's assets, operations, and reputation34.
References
1: Cybersecurity Incident Response Exercise Guidance - ISACA 2: Cybersecurity Tabletop Exercises:
Everything You Ever Wanted to Know 3: CISA Tabletop Exercise Package 4: Boost Your Incident Response Plan with Tabletop Exercises
NEW QUESTION # 140
Test and development environments should be separated. True or false?
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Test and development environments should be separated, to control the stability of the test environment.
NEW QUESTION # 141
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